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Grammar explanation.

 

I've decided to make coffee for you after having made for myself.
"
Is it right sentence?

Could you explain to me "having made" grammatically?

For learning: English
Base language: English
Category: Language

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    If you presented a cup of coffee to someone, I would prefer something like:

    Here you are. I decided to make you a cup of coffee AFTER having made a cup for myself.

    As you know, "after" is a preposition here. And you need a noun (or noun-like word) after the preposition. "Having" is a gerund (that is, an -ing word that is used as a noun).

    You could say "after MAKING a cup of coffee for myself." But "having made" is considered more correct because "having made" refers to time BEFORE the main verb. That is, I decided at 7 a.m. to make coffee for you. I had ALREADY made coffee for myself at 6:50 a.m.


    If you did not wish to use a preposition, you could have said: Here you are. I decided to make a cup of coffee for you after I had made a cup of coffee for myself. ("After" here is a conjunction. It connects two sentences: I decided to make a cup of coffee for you + I had made a cup of coffee for myself.) Sometimes native speakers do not use the past perfect, so they might just say: I decided to make coffee for you after I made coffee for myself.

     

    I('ve) decided to make coffee for you after having made *some/a cup* for myself.

    "Having made" is a perfect active participle (?) modifying "I". Maybe.

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