nekonote
How does the meaning change if "will" is removed? 1. A candidate must submit an application before human resources will schedule an interview. 2. A candidate must submit an application before human resources schedule an interview. Please tell me the difference in nuance between the two sentences above.
Feb 4, 2017 4:02 AM
Answers · 8
1
The second one sounds a bit more natural to me. Here's the nuance I detect in them. 1. "Each candidate must submit an application before human resources will be willing to schedule an interview with that candidate." Feels faintly specific. 2. "Human resources is not in the habit of scheduling an interview until after a candidate has submitted an application." Feels nice and general.
February 4, 2017
The first uses future tense and carries a bit of a command. If you don't follow their rules, you don't get an interview. The 2nd one uses present tense without that implication and also that is "fact", something that is true in the eyes of the viewer. For example, "the earth is flat". We know this is not true but there are still people who believe so.
February 4, 2017
For what it's worth, the second sentence sounds fine to my native ears. To me, the "will" is *understood* to be present even when it's not actually there, or it's meant in the spirit of "before human resources are in the habit of scheduling an interview."
February 4, 2017
That's very kind of you.
February 4, 2017
I am sure you know already, sentence #2 is not correct and sounds bad to the native ear. It's a conditional statement.... "A candidate must submit an application" This must happen..... BEFORE (conditional) "human resources WILL schedule an appointment" this WILL happen... Hope that helps :) Look up using will and would in conditional....
February 4, 2017
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