Have someone do something vs Get someone to do something
I would like you to clarify if these causative forms mean the same.

FORM 1: Have someone do something, MEANING: someone requests someone else to do something
FORM 2: Get someone to do something, MEANING: someone persuades someone else to do something

I took the meanings from the book "Understanding and Using English (fourth edition)" by Betty Azar. Are the meanings correct?

I'm interested to know whether both forms mean the same or not. I'm confused because I heard some people who teach English say that they mean the same. But if they both don't mean the same, they don't have to be enchanged.

Let's look at the following example sentences:

1.
1a. I have John clean the windows. (I request that John clean the windows - It makes sense)
1b. I get John to clean the windows. (I persuade John to clean the windows - It makes sense)

2
2a. I have a painter paint my house. (I request that a painter paint my house - When talking about the job of someone I think this should be the normal form

Question

Have someone do something vs Get someone to do something
I would like you to clarify if these causative forms mean the same.

FORM 1: Have someone do something, MEANING: someone requests someone else to do something
FORM 2: Get someone to do something, MEANING: someone persuades someone else to do something

I took the meanings from the book "Understanding and Using English (fourth edition)" by Betty Azar. Are the meanings correct?

I'm interested to know whether both forms mean the same or not. I'm confused because I heard some people who teach English say that they mean the same. But if they both don't mean the same, they don't have to be enchanged.

Let's look at the following example sentences:

1.
1a. I have John clean the windows. (I request that John clean the windows - It makes sense)
1b. I get John to clean the windows. (I persuade John to clean the windows - It makes sense)

2
2a. I have a painter paint my house. (I request that a painter paint my house - When talking about the job of someone I think this should be the normal form

Answer

Hmmmmm...

Generally I teach that the difference is about the relationships involved.

If I have someone do something it implies that I am in a position to command the other person. I'm their boss, Lord, master, employer, commanding officer, etc. I am not sure that this is always a request (depends on the definition of 'request').

And if I get someone to do something we are more equal, and yes I need to persuade them (as your textbook says).

I can understand why some people say that they are the same. Imagine I want to find someone to paint my house. I'm paying them, so I can command them...in theory. In reality I probably need to persuade them also!

BTW the phrases 'get something done" and "have something done" are generally interchangeable

Answer

I think your teachers are right.

For me"have someone do something" and "get someone to do something"  have the same meaning, and you could say either one when you don't want to be specific about "requesting" or "persuading".

However, I also think that Betty Azar is right:  depending on context, "get someone to do something" is more likely to suggest persuading, while "have someone do something" is more likely to suggest requesting.

Answer

Thanks, Federico, for your explanation. It really helped.

Answer

Hi Jorge, that's a great question! I would say "have someone do something" and "get someone do something" are very similar in that the end result is the same (someone will do what you told them to). However, I do see a little difference between the two.

To me, if you have someone do something it just means that someone will do what you ask them to do, it's like you're giving them a task.
When you say that you got someone to do something, you might be stressing that you had to convince someone to do something that they were not necessarily very willing to do. Sometimes, this can sound like they did you a favor.

Look at the sentences below:
1. I had my brother drive me around all afternoon
2. I got my brother to drive me around all afternoon

To me, sentence 1 could be rephrased as "I made my brother drive me around all afternoon" while sentence 2 would be "I convinced my brother to drive me around all afternoon." Now that is, if you're being very specific. But when speaking, I would say people can use them interchangeably. You could just be focusing on the end result and say sentence 1 when in fact you did have to persuade your brother -- you might just not be stressing that part.