Hello native English speakers. However, he said no one should be forced to take in second hand smoke --- which was why the group advocated segregated areas for those who did not what to be exposed. (original) Question: Is this sentence grammatically correct? Depending on my intuition of the prepositional phrase “for those who did not what to be exposed” , which is on the last part of the original, and , by the way, on my intuition of grammar, I have been puzzling about why the “ what to be exposed” being after the “did not” because， by grammar，there should be a bare infinitive after the “did not ” , why on earth should there be a noun phrase “what to be exposed” after it? I want to boldly guess about the nub so that the original might be grammatical : for those who did not what to be exposed = for those who did not be forced (or did not want ) to take in second hand smoke , which is what to be exposed. and only in this way can I slightly have a good feeling to understand the original I am very eager to get help ---liberating me from my predicament on understanding such a predicamental noun phrase.