No, this sentence is always used with "le" even if the noun is plural, because the noun of "le" is not the noun of the sentence, "le" refers to the "jugo"... "sacar el jugo", not what the "jugo" is taken from. Le saqué el jugo a mis zapatillas (feminine plural) Le saqué el jugo a mi idea (feminine singular) Le saqué el jugo a tu auto (masculine singular) Le saqué el jugo a los perros (masculine plural). I hope this helps.

Well! If you change "les" by "los", actually that makes no sense. The right sentence is: Le saqué jugo a mis defectos, not "les" nor "los". Have into account that every single verb in spanish has a specific preposition or word to be with. The verb "saqué" (In infinitive, it's sacar) in this case has to be along with "le" why??? No idea, The thing is that you'll always say "sacarLE el jugo a algo" --> To take advantage of something (Notice that the LE is sufixed, if it's there, you can't take it off, when you conjugate the verb sacar, you put the LE before). That's an idiom, It doesn't make any sense grammatically but you'll always have to respect its structure. A native speaker of spanish won't NEVER say: Los saqué el jugo a mis defectos or les saqué el jugo a mis defectos (Actually, some people say the second one but anyways is wrong) Both sound really awkward!

Espero que le saques jugo a tu cerebro después de esto! Jajajaja!