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dolco
"I told you not to do that!" vs "I've told you not to do that!"
When theses are used in an upset tone, would they basically mean the same thing? Even though I checked all the grammars about how past tense and present perfect tense are different, I could hardly grasp the differences here. I know that the 'told' is a dynamic verb and 'have told' is a static verb, and that present perfect is the result of the past event, but when the speaker is angry and yelling the former example in the title to someone else, wouldn't that eventually be telling about how the present situation is affected and they are annoyed by it?
2019년 5월 31일 오후 12:27
답변 · 7
2
I would say yes. although I told you not to do that, to mean implies singular instance, I've/I have told implies multiple
I told you not to do that yesterday
I have told you not to do that a million times (we love to exaggerate ;) )
although in colloquial speech, yeah, in the north of England, we'd probably use them interchangeably.
2019년 5월 31일
2
“I told you not to do that” implies a single event whereas “I’ve (I have) told you not to do that” implies that the speaker has been telling someone several times not to do something over a longer period of time. Hopefully this explanation helps.
2019년 5월 31일
@Christina Thank you!!!!! :D
2019년 5월 31일
I agree. "have told" is used when you tell someone to stop or not do something MULTIPLE times but they continue to do it. Keep in mind that when this happens we are generally really frustrated and the stress changes in our voice, at least in the United States.
"I told you not to do that" turns into "I have TOLD you not to do that" with us emphasizing "told" when we actually speak. Frustration is usually implied when you use the second phrase. Despite warning the person multiple times they continue to do it.
2019년 5월 31일
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