周秋心
been in and been to
(1) He has ever been in American for 3 years.
(2) He has been to American for 3 years.
Do the two sentences have the same meanings in some ways?
2019년 7월 22일 오전 11:36
답변 · 4
the first sentence does not make sense at all. the second sentence is close. "been to" means you were there but have now left. so you can say "he has been to America." Or you can say "been in" which is like saying "lived in". Example: "he has been in America for 3 years" or "he has lived in America for 3 years" or "he has been living in America for 3 years." they are all saying the same thing.
2019년 7월 22일
the first sentence does not make sense at all. the second sentence is close. "been to" means you were there but have now left. so you can say "he has been to America." Or you can say "been in" which is like saying "lived in". Example: "he has been in America for 3 years" or "he has lived in America for 3 years" or "he has been living in America for 3 years." they are all saying the same thing.
2019년 7월 22일
the first sentence does not make sense at all. the second sentence is close. "been to" means you were there but have now left. so you can say "he has been to America." Or you can say "been in" which is like saying "lived in". Example: "he has been in America for 3 years" or "he has lived in America for 3 years" or "he has been living in America for 3 years." they are all saying the same thing.
2019년 7월 22일
2) is incorrect.
And 1) needs changing too.
'He has been in America for 3 years.'
2019년 7월 22일
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