Viola
Hi, I got a grammar-related question: why should "before" move right next to "never" when the natural sentence transforms into partial inversion sentence? Can someone help please? ( I hope I've made myself clearer, please do let me know if I'm not.) I have never seen such a good film before. ---> Never before have I seen such a good film.
Oct 22, 2021 3:09 PM
Answers · 6
1) I have never seen such a good film before. 2) Never before have I seen such a good film. For 1), you could also say, "I have never before seen such a good film." And for 2), You could also say, "Never have I seen such a good film before." (although this sounds less elegant than 2) does.) Grammatically, I can't explain any exact rule, but I suppose "before" here is an adverb modifying another adverb ("never"), so it's a little lost in the sentence and doesn't know where it should go.
October 22, 2021
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