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Spanish grammar: clitics

The Platiquemos course U.15 states that I'm wrong translating the sentence: "Un señor les ha comprado la casa a ellos" as "A man has bought them  the house". What is the correct translation to your mind and why? Thank you.

Mar 25, 2018 3:41 PM
Comments · 4
I think the book is wrong. Just because it is in a book, it doesn't mean it is correct.
March 26, 2018

Thank you for your efforts. You should have payed attention to the highlighted pronoun them.

The textbook translates it as: "A man bought the house FROM them."

I've already spoken with four Spanish speaking persons and none of then translated it differently from my version.

I am lost. The book cannot possibly be wrong.

The answer will be posted if I bump into it in the later Units.

Thank you all.

REF: http://www.fsi-language-courses.net/languages/Spanish/Basic/Volume%201/Fsi-SpanishBasicCourse-Volume1-StudentText.pdf

page 15.22, Item 16 (bottom of the page).

March 26, 2018
Or The gentleman bought the house for them.
March 25, 2018
I think your translation is correct, it could also be "gentleman" instead of man. Or " A gentleman bought the house to them." But it's better the one you gave. 
March 25, 2018
hespan
Language Skills
English, Spanish
Learning Language
Spanish