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Spanish grammar: clitics

The Platiquemos course U.15 states that I'm wrong translating the sentence: "Un señor les ha comprado la casa a ellos" as "A man has bought them  the house". What is the correct translation to your mind and why? Thank you.

Mar 25, 2018 3:41 PM
Comments · 4
I think the book is wrong. Just because it is in a book, it doesn't mean it is correct.
March 26, 2018

Thank you for your efforts. You should have payed attention to the highlighted pronoun them.

The textbook translates it as: "A man bought the house FROM them."

I've already spoken with four Spanish speaking persons and none of then translated it differently from my version.

I am lost. The book cannot possibly be wrong.

The answer will be posted if I bump into it in the later Units.

Thank you all.


page 15.22, Item 16 (bottom of the page).

March 26, 2018
Or The gentleman bought the house for them.
March 25, 2018
I think your translation is correct, it could also be "gentleman" instead of man. Or " A gentleman bought the house to them." But it's better the one you gave. 
March 25, 2018
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