Heng Zhang
Anyone , who can give me a detailed explanation of the grammar of this sentence "if i was to write a book,i wouldn't use a ridiculous name called "Topsy Krets "!"

If the author intends to use conjunctive mood ,why does he use "was "instead of "were "?

Apr 29, 2018 4:30 AM
Comments · 3
3
You’re right — it is subjunctive, and should be “if I were to…”. Native speakers frequently fail to use the subjunctive mood — particularly in British English or in colloquial speech. Your example, which is so obviously subjunctive (I mean, he could have just said “if I wrote…”) strikes me as deliberately seeking a very casual or “folksy” effect (although it may not be that unusual in spoken UK English). Additionally, there are  colloquial versions of English that never use “were” at all — they always substitute “was” (this is particularly common in London English, if I’m not mistaken. You’ll also hear it on the US east coast).
By the way; in English, we say subjunctive mood, not "conjunctive."
April 29, 2018
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It's true that "were" would be more grammatically correct. However, it's very common for native speakers to use "was" instead of "were" in the conjunctive mood. In other words, it's a mistake, but it's a common mistake amongst native speakers.

-Tom

April 29, 2018
I agree with Tom. Native English speakers incorrectly use "was" instead of "were" over 90% of the time in my estimation.
April 29, 2018