Inversion (will, shall)


How often is subject-verb inversion used with "shall" and "will"?

For example, in the Bible, Genesis 2:24 says "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh"... Therefore shall a man..."... And 2 Corinthians 12:8-9 says:  "This thing I besought the Lord thrice, that it might depart from me. <sup class="versenum" style="color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Times;"> </sup>And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me....

Is that still common? "Therefore shall a man..." and "therefore will I rather glory..."? Is it wrong to say "Therefore a man shall leave..." and "Therefore I will rather glory in..."? Do I have to place "shall/will" before I? 

Thank you

May 11, 2018 5:40 PM
Comments · 4
Yes, there is an Answer Board for grammar questions to be answered. This is the Discussion Board. Your question about archaic 1611 English belongs on the other board.  
May 11, 2018
This is the Discussion section. Italki has an Answer section where questions should be posted. I know you know about it because your alter ego Gabriel uses it. 
May 11, 2018
May 11, 2018
May 11, 2018