Lucas
Inversion (will, shall)

Hi,there


How often is subject-verb inversion used with "shall" and "will"?

For example, in the Bible, Genesis 2:24 says "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh"... Therefore shall a man..."... And 2 Corinthians 12:8-9 says:  "This thing I besought the Lord thrice, that it might depart from me. <sup class="versenum" style="color: rgb(0, 0, 0); font-family: Times;"> </sup>And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me....


Is that still common? "Therefore shall a man..." and "therefore will I rather glory..."? Is it wrong to say "Therefore a man shall leave..." and "Therefore I will rather glory in..."? Do I have to place "shall/will" before I? 


Thank you

May 11, 2018 5:40 PM
Comments · 4
1
Yes, there is an Answer Board for grammar questions to be answered. This is the Discussion Board. Your question about archaic 1611 English belongs on the other board.  
May 11, 2018
1
This is the Discussion section. Italki has an Answer section where questions should be posted. I know you know about it because your alter ego Gabriel uses it. 
May 11, 2018
Hi
May 11, 2018
Hello
May 11, 2018