Check out our updated Community
Redundancy of object pronouns

Hello Italki community, I've got a quick doubt,


What would be the grammatically correct sentence?: "There's no need to call. Just text me" or "There's no need to call me. Just text me".


Are both correct? If that's so, why should we choose one or the other?


Thanks in advance

Mar 2, 2015 1:05 PM
Comments · 5

Both are correct, and in different parts of the world you'll hear both being used. 


However, I use "There's no need to call. Just text me" far more frequently. 

March 2, 2015

I agree with the thus stated. Yet 'me' also stands as a strong 'understood' and could easily be removed entirely from the set of both statements, which can additionally be employed as one sentence, i.e. "There's no need to call - just text." or "There's no need to call; just text." etcetera.

March 2, 2015

You don't need the 'me' after 'call'. The verb 'call' and its synonyms (phone, telephone, ring) don't need an object. Just phone. Just ring.


I'd say this without the 'me' to avoid the repetition: "There's no need to call. Just text me"

March 2, 2015

Hi Kharma, both optiones are correct. Although I'd prefer the first one so you don't repeat the word "me". But you can use both of the optiones you have there :)

March 3, 2015

you can text me instead of calling , actually the verb text is new ver ,,so you can't consider it grammatically 100% true

March 2, 2015
Language Skills
English, French, German, Japanese, Spanish
Learning Language
English, French, German, Japanese