Sanya
Why does the author omit...? He no longer dreamed of storms, nor of great occurrences, nor of great fish, nor fights, nor contests of strength. Does this sentence mean 'He no longer dreamed of storms, he nor dreamed of great occurrences, he nor dreamed of great fish, he nor dreamed of fight, and he nor dreamed of contests of strength'? Why does the author omit the preposition 'of' before fights and contests of strength?
Apr 27, 2011 4:27 AM
Answers · 2
sanya, It means: "He no longer dreamed of storms and he no longer dreamed of great occurrences and he no longer dreamed of great fish, and he no longer dreamed of fights and he no longer dreamed of contests of strength." There is no grammatical reason why Hemingway omitted the 'of' before 'fights' and 'contests of strength'. It is purely a question of writing style. Often writers read their stories out loud, and if they don't like the way the written word sounds when spoken, they will change it in order to make it more pleasant to the ear. I assume that he didn't like the way "of fights" and "of contests of strength" sounded. Perhaps the repetition of the f sound in "of fights" and the repetition of the word of in "of contests of strength" irritated his ear.
April 27, 2011
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Sanya
Language Skills
Chinese (Mandarin), English
Learning Language
English