Community Web Version Now Available
影shadow
Why doesn't Spanish has l' ,d' ,t' ,m' or un'?? For example,French has "le+ été=l'été", "de+accord=d'accord",Italian has "una+employee=un'employee"...... French also even has " toi+aime=t'aime","moi+appelle=m'appelle"..... French,Italian and Spanish are all Latin languages,why doesn't Spanish have those?? Can this kind of writen style like "L'amor", "D'acuerdo" ,"un'empresa" "T'ayudo" be admitted by native Spanish speakers?
Jan 22, 2012 9:01 AM
10
1
Answers · 10
I'm not an expert so I can't tell you why the ancient Castillian (currently called Spanish) evolved in a different way than other Romance languages. I only can tell you that, as far as I know, there are only to forms of contraction in the Spanish language: De + el = del A + el = al And the rule for using them has two excepcions. 1) You can't use the contraction if the article is used as part of a proper noun. i.e.: Llamaron de El Cairo. Es un cuadro de El Greco. Viajaremos a El Salvador. 2) If there are two consecutive forms 'de el', you can only use the contraction in the 2nd one. i.e.: Su valor está por encima de el del mercado (Which really means 'Su valor está por encima del valor del mercado', where you can use the contraction because they're not together. It's quite common in these cases not to repeat the word when you're speaking, although it's legal to use both forms).
January 22, 2012
What a very strange question. If Spanish did have those forms, we'd probably call it French.
January 22, 2012
In Spanish there are no contractions (´) as in other languages ​​eg French or English. En el Español no existen las contracciones formadas con (´).
January 22, 2012
影shadow
Language Skills
Chinese (Mandarin), Chinese (Shanghainese), English, French, Japanese, Spanish
Learning Language
Chinese (Shanghainese), English, French, Japanese, Spanish