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What is correct? and Why? He has been gloomy lately. or He's gloomy lately. What is the difference?
Nov 3, 2012 5:30 PM
Answers · 2
Both are correct. 'He has been gloomy lately' refers to being gloomy in the near past. 'He's gloomy lately' is the spoken version of 'he I gloomy lately' which is in the present tense. This phase, although strictly correct, is far more likely to be used in US English rather than in British English.
November 3, 2012
He has been gloomy lately. The other sentence doesn't make sense.
November 3, 2012
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