Community Web Version Now Available
a question???? reading a examples of modals verb, i found this sentece " could you pass the salt please? ", i thik that it say " could you pass me the salt please? "? the question is, why isn't it the pronoun me?.
May 18, 2013 11:20 PM
Answers · 3
George is right. Both are used. In the first sentence the "me" is implied you assume that the person asking is the one who wants the salt. However, people often say me anyway.
May 19, 2013
Actually, you could use both. I use both.
May 19, 2013
"pass" means to move from one place to another. It is either moved to a person or is a person moving somewhere. For example, passing the salt to someone or a person passing from room to room. If someone asks "Could you pass the salt please?" then they are asking you to give it someone. We can guess that they want it, so don't need to add "me" after "pass", but maybe they want you to pass it to someone else. Without the pronoun, it is unclear.
May 18, 2013
Language Skills
English, Spanish
Learning Language