Why does the author say "Both struggles have the same cause"?
I read the following passage on http://www.economist.com/news/business/21599012-operators-both-sides-atlantic-hope-break-spell-four-magic-number
"IN AMERICA, a price war is threatened. In Europe, combatants in a bloody conflict hope for peace. Both struggles have the same cause: that the number of big mobile-phone operators might be cut from four, the norm in many countries, to three."
I don't know why the author says "Both struggles have the same cause". The bloody conflict in Europe doesn't relate to cutting the number of big mobile-phone operators, does it?
Yes, the auhtor means that both the price war and the conflict in europe do indeed have the same cause. Weather or not this is actually true, I don't know. But you are correct in assuming that is what the author meant
March 15, 2014
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