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Why "I have been knowing him for few years" is not correct? I know it is a same type of sentence with "I have been studying English for few years" "I have been waiting her for few days" then why "I have been knowing him for few years" is not correct?
Jan 23, 2016 7:06 AM
Answers · 10
The rule here is stative vs dynamic verbs. "To know" is a stative verb (we actually can't see the action), so "I have been knowing" doesn't make much sense. You can search for "stative verbs English" and you'll find a useful list. These don't normally change into continuous form.
January 23, 2016
The best was to say this is, "I have known him for a few years."
January 23, 2016
Some perception, state, and cognitive (brain activity) verbs don't like -ing. The only occasions they actually stand it is when their meaning change: - I'm having breakfast -> I'm eating. - Stop being stupid -> Stop acting stupid. You can't be knowing. Either you know or you don't.
January 23, 2016
The verb following "I have been" must be a sustainable one. "know" is instantaneous verb, which means you can not KNOW something for a duration of time
January 23, 2016
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