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HELP ME PLEASE Why does the verb '' go '' transform into '' went ''( V2) and then transform into '' gone ''( V3 ) ? How can I find etymological information about it ?? Thanks for the help in advance..
Nov 1, 2008 2:01 PM
Answers · 5
November 1, 2008
@ Iewa: you are completely Out of context :p Eda isn't too bad in English to ask about some basic stuff. Anyway, try to type these keywords in Google: to go etymology. Here is few of what is available on Wikipedia. "The principal parts of the word are go, went, gone. Otherwise the modern English verb conjugates regularly. The irregularity of the principal parts results from the fact that they derive from two or possibly three different Indo-European roots. The preterite (or 'simple past tense') is in no way etymologically related to go, for went comes from wendan in Old English, which is also the source of wend. Old English wendan and gān (the latter of which means go) did share semantic similarities, and their similar meanings can be seen in the fact that the sentence "I'm wending my way home", means "I'm going home." " http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Go_etymology
November 1, 2008
sorry i mean it does not make sense. for further information visit www.englisch-hilfen.de
November 1, 2008
These verbs (GO,WENT,GONE and etc)depend on tenses or duration of the usage of that particticular verb in specific time. Example:In the following sentence Kim will GO to the conference. Kim WENT to the conference. Kim have GONE to the conference. same as that there many many verbs we need to be femiliar with them because if we use them in the wrong place for example if we use the future tense in past tense or others then the whole sentence will go wrong and it does make sence. I hope now it's clear for you:)
November 1, 2008
it depends on time...im not so goon in teaching times :) past simple "went" past continues "gone"
November 1, 2008
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