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The difference Hello! Could anybody please tell me the difference in meaning (if there is any) between these sentences - If i had had a proper education i would be rich now. AND if i had had a proper education i would have been rich now. I dont really understand the use of perfect tense in the second sentence.
Oct 21, 2016 6:57 AM
Answers · 6
Both are fine, but there is a slight difference in meaning. If you say "would," it expresses your confidence that the chance for such an outcome would have been high. If you say "could," then it expresses that you think there would have been a possibility for the outcome, but perhaps you would not be as confident about that thought. Does this make sense? Let me know if you have anything else you'd like to know.
October 21, 2016
Hello, only the second sentence is correct which is type 3 conditional.' had had' ( past perfect tense), and it must be completed with 'would/could HAVE BEEN'(would+HAVE+PAST PARTICIPLE). This sentence means that I didn't have a proper education so I didn't become rich.The condition and its result are in the past and hypothetical,so I can't change the condition anymore. If you say "If I had a proper education, I would be rich" which is type 2 conditional , had (past simple), would be(would+infinitive without 'to'). It means that I don't have a proper education,and am probably not going to have it in the future, just imagining it. The condition is in the present and unreal. Hope this helps )
October 21, 2016
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English, Russian
Learning Language