I got a sentence: أنا فقير جداً و ليست لديَّ أية مؤهلات علمية And it can be translated as: I am very poor man I dont have any scientific qualifications? Can somebody explain why there is ليست instead of لست ? I thought it refers to the one who is speaking. And also the structure ليس +لدى could somebody elaborate on this? Thank you :)
Sep 2, 2018 11:40 AM
Answers · 6
(ليست) refers to (مؤهلات) which is a feminine plural so we add (ت) at the end. (ليس) is a negation word like (DON'T) in English ex:ليس عندى = don't have ليس موجود = doesn't exist ليس لدى = I don't have a masculine thing ليست لدى = I don't have a feminine thing
September 7, 2018
The ت in ليست refers to المؤهلات Which it a feminine plural
September 4, 2018
They are 2 different conjugations of the same verb. The verb is "لَيْسَ", and it means "He/it is not". All the conjugations of this verb: Only the present tense of this verb eXists, as far as I know, and here are all the conjugations in the present tense: أَنَا - لَسْتُ (I am not) نَحْنُ - لَسْنَا (We are not) أَنْتَ - لَسْتَ (You (1 male) are not) أَنْتِ - لَسْتِ (You (1 female) are not) أَنْتُمَا - لَسْتُمَا (You (2 males) are not) أَنْتُمَا - لَسْتُمَا (You (2 females) are not) أَنْتُمْ - لَسْتُمْ (You (3 or more males/a miXed group/a single respected individual) are not) أَنْتُنَّ - لَسْتُنَّ (You (3 or more females and only females) are not) هُوَ - لَيْسَ (He is not) هِيَ - لَيْسَتْ (She is not) هُمُا - لَيْسَا (They (2 males) are not) هُمَا - لَيْسَتَا (They (2 females) are not) هُمْ - لَيْسُوا (They (3 or more males/a miXed group/a single respected individual) are not) هُنَّ - لَسْنَ (They (3 or more females and females only) are not)
September 2, 2018
I am not a native speaker, so please take this with a grain of salt. I only know classical Arabic. Modern usage may have pitfalls... As to the best of my knowledge ليس لدى is just a more emphatic version of ليس لى. As Arabic doesn't belong to those languages having a word for "to have" like e.g. Polish, German, English, or French there is another way of indicating possession, like in Latin (mihi est ...) or in Russian (у меня ...). The Arabic "solution" for "to have" works exactly like Latin. So the verb involved ليس (not to be) is in a neutral form (3.Pers.Sg.) and does not agree with the possessor. I hope this helps. transcription of the above, using classical i'ráb: anâ faqîrun jiddan, wa laisat ladayya ayyata muahalâtin 'ilmiyyatin. The grammatical subject is "ayya" which due to the rule of "laisa wa akhawâtuhâ" is in accusative. And because "ayya" is feminine, the verb must be 3.Pers.Sg feminine i.e. "laisat". You Arabic native speakers out there, reading this, please correct and complete! من فضلکم
September 2, 2018
ليستorلست both of them are right but in case of ليست the ي refer to the speaker
September 2, 2018
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