I wouldn't worry about it. In some languages, the base form of the verb is different from the infinitive, but in English the form is the same. The only issue is whether or not the infinitive is preceded by 'to', so some people refer to the form without to as the 'base form', others as the 'bare infinitive'.

If I understand your question correctly, there isn't any universal agreement on these terms. Take 'go' for instance. Some will describe the infinitive of this as "to go" and the base as "go". But others will describe the infinitive as "go" AND the base form as "go".