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yujini
"We'll accept her as soon as the tuition *has been received*." Why *has p.p*?
"We'll be happy to accept her as soon as the first semester's tuition *has been received*."
Why is it not "... as soon as the tuition *is* received"?
Or if it's conditional, shouldn't it be "was" instead?
How come "has p.p" is used here?
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below is the full context just in case you need it,
"We are happy to inform you that we have a vacancy at Chilton Preparatory starting immediately due to your daughter's excellent credentials and your enthusiastic pursuit of her enrollment.
We'll be happy to accept her as soon as the first semester's tuition *has been received*."
Sep 22, 2019 5:46 AM
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Answers · 2
The original makes more sense to me in this case. Using 'is' is possible, but it seems a little too immediate here.
What if the payment arrives overnight? They are not going to process it then, they are going to do it the next day.
As dayot538 said, this can vary, and is what I would say.
He was also correct about 'was' being incorrect.
September 22, 2019
Either of the first two phrases are acceptable - "as soon as the tuition is received" is a type of conditional, or "as soon as the tuition has been received" is a type of future imperfect. The first seems more natural to a Canadian speaker, but the use of tenses is slightly different at different levels of formality and between different dialects. It is incorrect to say "as soon as the tuition was received," because this is past tense and not conditional.
September 22, 2019
