might have (BEEN) attracted - This choice might have been attracted derogatory remarks. and This choice might have attracted derogatory remarks. Do these sentences have the same meaning? Do these sentences have same sense? Thank you.
Oct 10, 2019 6:07 AM
Answers · 4
The first sentence is incorrect, it is a mixture between passive and active firms of the perfect tense. The second sentence is correct, it is a perfect passive tense, meaning that this choice might have caused other people to make derogatory comments. The first sentence can be made grammatically correct by the addition of 'to' or 'by' after 'been', meaning that derogatory comments attracted the choice, but although grammatically correct it would not normally make much sense as choices are inanimate and intangible and cannot really be attracted to anything. Maybe you mean 'derogatory comments influenced this choice'
October 10, 2019
The first sentence is wrong — where did you get it from? Did you hear it or see it? It can be fixed grammatically by adding “by”. The meaning is different from the second one. The meaning won’t really make sense, but the grammar is as follows: “This choice might have been attracted by derogatory remarks.” The above passive voice sentence means the same as “Derogatory remarks might have attracted this choice.” Again, the above sentence don’t make sense.
October 10, 2019
Still haven’t found your answers?
Write down your questions and let the native speakers help you!
Language Skills
English, Russian
Learning Language