Sunomonoius
While reading Sherlock Holmes, I found a sentence unexplained. “I should prefer having a partner to being alone.” A sentence from “A study in scarlet”. What’s the reason “to being alone” comes after such a sentence like that? I prefer having parter means I don’t want to be alone, right? But then to being alone turns it no sense to me. Would you help me explaining why? You can just throw an answer if in a hurry. Thanks in advance. “By Jove!" I cried, "if he really wants someone to share the rooms and the expense, I am the very man for him.” These are the before-sentences in case you don’t get it!
Oct 14, 2019 9:14 AM
Answers · 7
3
If you're talking about your preference for one option over another option, the standard construction is 'prefer x to y'. In this phrase, 'to' is a normal preposition ( rather than part of an infinitive), so it needs to be followed either by a noun or a gerund, in this case 'being'. For example, if you'd rather swim than sunbathe, you'd say "I'd prefer swimming to sunbathing". The speaker would rather have a partner than be alone, so he says "I'd prefer having a partner to being alone". I hope that helps.
October 14, 2019
1
When reading such stories you should keep in mind that the writing is of the style of 100 years ago.
October 14, 2019
It means he prefers having a partner - more than being alone. I'm not a teacher, so I can't explain the grammatical reasons, but when you are sharing a preference for something, we say "I prefer X to Y" He is comparing one state of being, to another state of being.
October 14, 2019
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