becky
pronombres Why is los(les) used in the following example? Nos han llamado?- No, a ustedes no los(les) han llamado. is it simply because "they" were already mentioned in the question sentence indirectly as "han"? I also am not sure exactly who los(les) is indicating. Please help me out!
Nov 17, 2019 4:13 AM
Answers · 2
Ohhh Thank you so much! I should have thought about it more!!!
November 17, 2019
"Les" refers to "ustedes"(you all ) They haven't called you all. (a ustedes) is optional.
November 17, 2019
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becky
Language Skills
English, Spanish
Learning Language
Spanish