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Mehrdad
Does it mean people had higher moral values in the past?(compare to now?) I fancy that life is more amusing now than it was forty years ago and I have a notion that people are more amiable. They may have been worthier then, possessed of more solid virtue as, I am told, they were possessed of more substantial knowledge; I do not know.
Aug 18, 2020 3:22 PM
Answers · 4
Mehrdad ~ The writer is saying that he's been told people possessed more "substantial knowledge" in the past, and he is using this to infer that they may have also been worthier in the sense of having ALSO possessed more solid virtue, (had higher moral values), but he says in the end, he really does not know. To infer something is: to deduce or conclude something from evidence and reasoning based on related facts.
August 18, 2020
Thanks.
August 19, 2020
This feels rather tongue in cheek, a little bit mocking. Is the writer making fun of a tendency of people to idealise "the good old days", when everything, of course, was "better"?
August 18, 2020
Mehrdad
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