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Do you think usage of a highly inflected language would make an individual stronger analytically? Could it help to make a whole nation stronger and more causative? Latin was highly inflected, though I am not sure how many of its citizens actually used High Latin fully.
Jan 19, 2011 2:08 AM
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Analytical Is a current characteristic of a language that was inflected in antiquity. Ex: Old English (inflected) and today much more analytical. The language does not make its speakers.
January 19, 2011
no
January 19, 2011
If we look at the smartest people in world: 1. The Jews. 2. The Iranians. 3. No idea ...are their languages highly inflected? The Arabic language is inflected, but they're not terribly smart. Your question is rather interesting, though. Germans are very analytical, and so are many Central Europeans, and their languages are highly inflected. Most lame-ass thinking (in the free world) seems to come from Britain and America, and we all know English isn't inflected. So it is not that easy to draw conclusions. I would admit though, that speaking a highly inflected language may assist you to become more analytical. But whether you grow smart or not is really up to you. I must add that learning German did sharpen my thinking quite considerably.
January 19, 2011
I can only say this is a very interesting subject and a long and deep research could maybe give a partial answer; 1) the subjects of the research should be of similar "innate capabilities", so the best we could hope for are pairs of homozigote twins, that has been separated for some reasons (of course not by the researchers!) at a very early age, each going to a different country; how to factor out differences in the schooling system ? This could be really hard! But if the answer will turn out to be affirmative, than the schooling system will be seen as a result of the language so it will just be its completion. The 'twins approach' is similar to what has been done to research in other areas like schizophrenia. 2) Italian is a very inflected language (approx. 95 verbal voices for each verb, although with some repetitions); I have been thinking over the result of this, and actually I relate this to our continuous desire to "break the rules" (that sincerely I don't share); if you need examples of this, just look at Italian leading politicians, or spend some time in my (actually) nice Country.
January 19, 2011
Hi this is a very interesting question. My first language was Lithuanian even though I was born in Australia. The Lithuanian language is a highly inflected language in which the relationships between parts of speech and their roles in a sentence are expressed by numerous flexions. There are 2 grammatical genders in Lithuanian - feminine and masculine. There is no neuter gender per se.It has 5 noun and 3 adjective declensions and 3 verbal conjugations. All verbs have present, past, past iterative and future tenses of the indicative mood, subjunctive (or conditional) and imperative moods (both without distinction of tenses) and infinitive. These forms, except the infinitive, are conjugative, having 2 singular, 2 plural persons and the third person form common both for plural and singular. Lithuanian has the richest participle system of all Indo-European languages, having participles derived from all tenses with distinct active and passive forms, and several gerund forms. Nouns and other declinable words are declined in 7 cases: nominative, genitive, dative, accusative, instrumental, locative, and vocative. Despite this, I can't say that being fluent in Lithuanian has made its people more analytical than others.
January 19, 2011
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