nozturk
What's the difference between "Is anybody hurt?" and "Has anybody been hurt?" ?
Apr 26, 2011 11:32 AM
Answers · 2
"Is anybody hurt?" means is anybody hurting right now. "Has anybody been hurt?" means did anybody already get hurt. Technically, you could ask them both in the same situation. Eg. if you hear a huge crash in another room, you might run in and ask either of those questions and it would be considered appropriate. However, I think you would be more likely to ask "is anybody hurt?" when you are in the situation yourself (as the above example), and "has anybody been hurt?" when you weren't there for the event or after the event is over. Eg. if there was a strong storm somewhere and you heard about it, you might ask "has anybody been hurt?"
April 26, 2011
nozturk, a) Is anybody being hurt? = present continuous passive.= Is anybody being hurt in the present moment while I am speaking. b) Is anybody hurt? = present simple passive. The hurt happened in the indefinite present. The present is extended in the in the mind of the speaker to cover the recent event because the statement is still true now. Example. I am invited to the party. You were not invited just now but the statement is still true now c) Has anybody been hurt? = present perfect passive tense. The hurt has taken place in the indefinite past which includes everthing up to the present moment in the mind of the speaker. The difference between b) and c) is in the mind of the speaker. The speaker relates to the 'hurt' as a present event in b) and as a past event in c).
April 26, 2011
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nozturk
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English, Turkish
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