Why is there a dot within the samech?
I was looking at Curious George the chilren's book and 'hasakran' has a dot within the samech?

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Thanks so much.

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http://www.hebrew4christians.com/Grammar/Unit_Four/The_Definite_Article/the_definite_article.html

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The dot, as Michael said, changes nothing in the pronunciation, but you'll find that after the definitive article ha the word always takes the dagesh (dot) (unless it is a guttural letter), it is just a grammatical rule.  Technically it should be pronounced stronger, but in practice this is often not done.

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This dot change nothing.

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