In theory, yes. If the past participle is being used as a verb form, the construction 'have/has been + past participle' ( or V3, as you call it) is always a passive. For example: The money has been stolen. The houses have been built. The food has been eaten. However, the V3 form frequently functions as an adjective. Take a look at these sentences: He has been drunk several times this week. That window has been broken for days. In those cases, the past participles are adjectives. The first sentence is obviously not a passive: it is clear that the word 'drunk' is an adjective, referring to the state of inebriation. The second sentence is less obvious. Here, 'The window has been broken' does not refer to the act of someone breaking the window: it describes its ongoing state. The window in question is 'a broken window', and it has been in this state for several days. This is an active sentence. I hope that answers your question.

V3? Example?