Mohamed
I arrived OR I've arrived ? Consider that I have a date with my friend at specified place. So when I arrived to this place and want to inform him. I will phone him and say (I arrived or I've arrived) and why? ----------------------------------------------------------------- Actually I confused about using the present perfect for example I can't understand why the next sentence used the present perfect. I don't see any explicit relation with the present! 1-They discuss the words that have been influenced by popular culture. 2-I think it might have been Vanity Fair used the word ‘Romneyshambles’ 3-The prefix ‘omni’, which means everywhere or everything, has been added to the noun ‘shambles’. 4-Thus word emphasises how really bad something has been messed up ------------------------------------------------------------- Would you show me in detains? And if you have any website to explain it more? Would you help me I will get crazy from this tense!!!!!
Apr 6, 2014 8:24 AM
Answers · 9
2
I this case you would say "I've arrived." or "I'm here (now)." if you want to word it differently to avoid the present perfect. I placed "now" in parentheses since it is optional. :) 1-They discuss the words that have been influenced by popular culture. The words were influenced in the past and still have that influence on them. Also, "that have been" is a passive form since the word "been" is included. An active form would be "They discuss words that popular culture has influenced." 2-I think it might have been Vanity Fair THAT used the word ‘Romneyshambles’. Here, "might have been" expresses that the speaker doesn't know for sure who did it, so in a sense it relates to present time because the speaker is still unsure. Hmmmm. Btw, you could also say "I think it was Vanity Fair that used the word 'Romneyshambles'." 3-The prefix ‘omni’, which means everywhere or everything, has been added to the noun ‘shambles’. Here, "has been added" means that the words were already added, hence they don't need to be and it relates to the present. 4-THIS word emphasises how really bad something has been messed up. Something was messed up in the past and still is at the time the speaker said the sentence. :)
April 6, 2014
1
Just to clarify, the second example with "might have been" is not present perfect. This is a different piece of grammar which we use to re-imagine the past - you'll see it used in 3rd Conditional.
April 6, 2014
1
You would call your friend and say 'I have arrived' The difference - if i add some more words, i can show you the true meaning of each sentence I arrived - 'in the past, at an unspecified time, i completed the act of arriving' I have arrived 'I have just recently completed the act of arriving'. 'I have' usually locates the act within a specific timeframe. Sometimes it is used to stress that the act was completed, perhaps if you are responding to someone who is lacking that knowledge, or believes otherwise. I'm afraid i don't really understand your question about 'RomneyShambles' but it is a compound noun that was created to mock some mis-steps of Mitt Romney when he was trying to become President of the United States of America.
April 6, 2014
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