prudent260
I just learned a new word 'fluke,' and want to know if how I use it is correct or not. 1. He moves up the ranks so fast by the fluke of a rich family. 2. He moves up the ranks so fast by the fluke of having a rich family. I'm wondering if the sentence is the same, with and without 'having.' Thank you. :)
10 Nis 2022 14:53
Yanıtlar · 18
1
If something was a fluke, it means it happens by chance and without explanation. I first time I tried, I hit the target. It was just a fluke; I've never hit the target since.
10 Nisan 2022
1
The noun "fluke" is an event that happens one time only. It does not imply whether the event is good or bad, nor whether it is was caused by luck or skill. (Example: The army won the war, then they vowed never to fight again, so it was a fluke.) In your example, the event should be "being born". "having a family" is not a one-off event. So try forming your sentence again with that knowledge.
10 Nisan 2022
1
Both are understandable. Both should probably be in the past tense, "he moved up the ranks." #1 is not correct. In #2 I would use the word "through" instead of "by," "through the fluke of..." #2 is a little unnatural, though, for two reasons. The first because the usual context for the word is a phrase like "it was a fluke," or as an adjective in the phrase "fluke accident." Second, "fluke" usually means something weird, surprising, something so bizarre that you would never expect it to happen. "Having a rich family" is good luck, but it isn't really "a fluke." Here are some more typical examples of use. "That was an unbelievable goal. That had to be a fluke." "No, that was no fluke. She's really that good." "In a fluke accident, the child was locked inside a school bus overnight, but was rescued unharmed."
10 Nisan 2022
1. any family 2. his own family
11 Nisan 2022
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