Stacee
What is the difference between saying ana amluk, ana indee, and ana ladahya in Arabic? Hi. I'm a beginner in learning Arabic. Can someone please explain to me when to use amlak, iindee, and ladahya? Is there a difference or is it interchangeable? Are those word choices for different dialects? I'm using a website that is choosing all three forms to mean "I have". Which word is best to use if there is a "best one"? I really would appreciate the help. Thank you in advance.I also heard ana amtaliku, but I'm assuming that's part of amlak(?)... or is that another option as well?
29 Haz 2017 23:25
Yanıtlar · 9
1
The four terms have the same meaning wich express the possession"to have", ana amlok (انا املك)-ana amtalik (انا امتلك)= I own ana iindee(انا عندي )-ana ladaya(انا لدي)=I have So you can use any one of these four. I hope this help you :)
29 Haziran 2017
1
they all have the same meaning there is no difference
2 Temmuz 2017
1
amlak ... own أملك I own a book أنا أملك كتاب, iindee ... ana iindee ketab ... I have a book أنا لدي كتاب ladahya ... same have but used with a group like nahn ladahya ketab we have a book نحند لدينا كتاب
30 Haziran 2017
1
ana amtaliku or amlak (both of words are the same but the preference is for amlak) = I own (like a house , car , company , 50,000 $) they use normally for something big. ana iindee= I have ,this word is an open word , and you can say it for something big and small ( car , cat , mobile , money , a new dress , allergy , cold , … ). = more popular ana ladahya = I have , it is less used than ana iindee. I hope it is clear for you now! Regards ))
30 Haziran 2017
1
All of the are the same meaning, you can use of them as you like, nothing is better, the difference is Amulak is a verb ( you have to conjugate it ). Good luck with Arabic.
30 Haziran 2017
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Stacee
Dil Becerileri
Arapça, Çince (Mandarin), İngilizce, Fransızca, Korece, Portekizce, İspanyolca, Svahili, Xhosa Dili
Öğrenim Dili
Arapça, Çince (Mandarin), Fransızca, Korece, Portekizce, İspanyolca, Svahili, Xhosa Dili