周秋心
been in and been to
(1) He has ever been in American for 3 years.
(2) He has been to American for 3 years.
Do the two sentences have the same meanings in some ways?
22 Tem 2019 11:36
Yanıtlar · 4
the first sentence does not make sense at all. the second sentence is close. "been to" means you were there but have now left. so you can say "he has been to America." Or you can say "been in" which is like saying "lived in". Example: "he has been in America for 3 years" or "he has lived in America for 3 years" or "he has been living in America for 3 years." they are all saying the same thing.
22 Temmuz 2019
the first sentence does not make sense at all. the second sentence is close. "been to" means you were there but have now left. so you can say "he has been to America." Or you can say "been in" which is like saying "lived in". Example: "he has been in America for 3 years" or "he has lived in America for 3 years" or "he has been living in America for 3 years." they are all saying the same thing.
22 Temmuz 2019
the first sentence does not make sense at all. the second sentence is close. "been to" means you were there but have now left. so you can say "he has been to America." Or you can say "been in" which is like saying "lived in". Example: "he has been in America for 3 years" or "he has lived in America for 3 years" or "he has been living in America for 3 years." they are all saying the same thing.
22 Temmuz 2019
2) is incorrect.
And 1) needs changing too.
'He has been in America for 3 years.'
22 Temmuz 2019
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