Ghazal
Hi . About passive Hi I came across this sentence " players pretend to have been fouled " . I want to know why it is used " have been fouled " after to ? I know it is passive but why past participle ? I've learnd to + verb is infinitive Why didn't writer said " players pretend to be fouled " Is there any diferentce ? Thank you
28 Mar 2020 08:47
Yanıtlar · 3
2
Jaren is right, it depends on what time period you are referring to. We use the past participle in the passive - (be + past participle) For example, “First, Apples are chopped and placed in a bowl”. (Present passive). “Computers have been used in offices for over twenty years” (Present Perfect Passive) We use the passive when we don’t want to emphasise the person who did the action, or the person is not important. Quentin Tarantino directed Pulp Fiction (ACTIVE) Pulp Fiction was directed by Quentin Tarantino (PASSIVE)
28 Mart 2020
Thank Jaren for help
28 Mart 2020
The difference between these sentences is very subtle. If you were to say “players pretended to be fouled”, it means that they pretended at a specific point in the past, but now they are done pretending. If you say “players pretend to have been fouled”, it means they are still pretending this past occurrence took place.
28 Mart 2020
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