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Caxio
Hello native English speakers.
Thank you very much in advance.
1a. It is four years since he was in New York.
1b. He was in New York four years ago.
1c. He has not been in New York for four years.
Question: Which is grammatically correct?
Do they have the same meaning?
2a. It is ten hours since I had anything to eat.
2b. I last had anything to eat ten hours ago.
2c. I have not been having anything to eat for ten hours.
2d. I have not had anything to eat for ten hours.
Question: Which is grammatically correct?
Do they have the same meaning?
١٣ مايو ٢٠٢٦ ٠٦:١٤
الإجابات · 3
1
#1.
All are grammatical but they all have different meanings:
a) He left NY four years ago. "It has been" would be better than "It is", but the meaning is the same.
b) This is a statement about one moment in time. It says nothing about what happened before or after that time (four years ago).
c) This is not the same as (a) because (c) leaves open the possibility that he may never have been in NY.
١٥ مايو ٢٠٢٦ ٢١:٤٩
المدعو
All of these are either grammatical or very close to grammatical, but they are not all equally natural, and some do not mean exactly the same thing.
All three usually imply that his last visit to New York was four years ago.
But there’s a subtle nuance:
* 1a / 1b focus on the time of the visit.
* 1c focuses on the period of absence.
So the meaning is effectively the same in normal conversation.
* 2a = 2b = 2d
All mean:
* You have eaten nothing during the last ten hours.
* 2c tries to express the same idea but sounds awkward and unnatural. It is not grammatically correct.
١٣ مايو ٢٠٢٦ ٠٧:٣٣
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Caxio
المهارات اللغوية
الصينية (المندرية), الإنجليزية
لغة التعلّم
الإنجليزية
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