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Craig Hall
Loísmos vs Leísmos
¿Estoy correcto que se utiliza el loísmo in América Latina y el leísmo en España?
Lo = you (formal)?
Gracias.Can lo, le be used for you?
"I see you" (male)= "Lo veo"?
Are the lo and le interchangable?
Is le used in Latin America?"I see you" (male, formal - Ud form)?
"Lo veo" ....if I'm talking to a female formally..."La veo?"
This is confusing. Thank you for your help.
٨ مايو ٢٠١٦ ١٨:٤٣
الإجابات · 2
I agree with Francisco, but I think you are talking about 'hablar de tu vs hablar de usted'.
I think It's not more in Latin América than in Spain, and you can choose between le/lo (or la if female) as you wish, but, if you want a trick, use always 'le' and it'll be always right when you are using Ud. form, even for male and female.
٨ مايو ٢٠١٦
Hi Esteban. Lo and le are not interchangable.
'Le' normally represents the indirect object whereas 'lo' represents the direct object.
So if I say: "Le dije 'te quiero'" That 'le' refers to the person to whom you are saying 'te quiero'
Whilst if you say: "No te lo comas" that 'lo' refers to the thing you are not allowed to eat.
It has nothing to do with formal or informal Spanish. What's more, the wrong use of these two words is considered as a vulgarism, thus incorrect (that is when you use 'le' instead of 'lo' and vice versa)
Sometimes it even changes the meaning of the sentence
'Le pegué' (I hit him)
'Lo pegué' (I stuck it)
(Note: pegar in Spanish means both Hit and Stick)
٨ مايو ٢٠١٦
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Craig Hall
المهارات اللغوية
الإنجليزية, الفرنسية, الألمانية, الإسبانية
لغة التعلّم
الفرنسية
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