why is 'would have done' used ranther than 'would do'? Is this form a subjunctive mood? At that point I decided to put my money into property. I figured that if I bought a small office building, then

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why is 'would have done' used ranther than 'would do'? Is this form a subjunctive mood? At that point I decided to put my money into property. I figured that if I bought a small office building, then by the time I reached retirement age, I WOULD HAVE PAID off the mortgage and could live off the rent.

٣٠ ديسمبر ٢٠١٦ ٠٦:٥٢

الإجابات · 7

Yes, David, you are right - it is not a subjunctive expression. There is a) a mixed conditional and b) a second conditional here a) if I bought (2nd) .... I would have paid off (3rd) b) if I bought (2nd) ... I could live off (2nd)

٣٠ ديسمبر ٢٠١٦

David, this sentence uses the third conditional construction. See here for more detail: https://www.englishgrammarsecrets.com/thirdconditional/menu.php

٣٠ ديسمبر ٢٠١٦

I have just seen that. Because the past form ‘figured’, so you have got to figure it out by stepping forward from the tense. The sentence isn't a subjunctive mood.

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