Something weird I've noticed:
UK English was closer to American English in the past, eg. "park" would be pronounced /pa:rk/ by Shakespeare, but most British today say /pa:k/, without the /r/. Also UK English conjugates "to get" as get/got/got but US English says get/got/gotten, which is the older form. (there's some debate about both forms around the English-speaking world!)
This is true for many other languages too: Canadian French is closer to medieval French, and South American Spanish sounds closer to the language spoken by the conquistadors of the 16th century. The name of the Afghan language "Dari" is derived from "Darbâri", which means "Imperial", and it's much closer to classical Persian what's spoken in Iran. Also Chinese poetry sounds more authentic in Cantonese than than in Mandarin (because Cantonese has about 9 different tones, like ancient Chinese. Modern Mandarin only has 4 tones. So Chinese poetry sounds more "musical" in Cantonese)
Has anyone else noticed this? Why are newer/rarer dialects are more archaic than the "original version"? I've looked everywhere for an explanation, and can't find one.

