"implicate" & "for ever"
My question is the meaning of "implicate" and "for ever" occurred in the following passage from George Orwell's 1984:

Sometimes they were released and allowed to remain at liberty for as much as a year or two years before being executed. Very occasionally some person whom you had believed dead long since would make a ghostly reappearance at some public trial where he would implicate hundreds of others by his testimony before vanishing, this time for ever.

Here is the definition of "implicate" in my dictionary:
verb [ trans. ]
1 show (someone) to be involved in a crime : police claims implicated him in many more killings.
• ( be implicated in) bear some of the responsibility for (an action or process, esp. a criminal or harmful one) : the team believes he is heavily implicated in the bombing | a chemical implicated in ozone depletion.
• involve (something) in a necessary way : cable franchise activities plainly implicate First Amendment interests.
2 [with clause ] convey (a meaning or intention) indirectly through what one says, rather than stating it explicitly; imply : by saying that coffee would keep her awake, Mary implicated that she didn't want any.

If I look at its sentence structure, it looks like 2.
But "to implicate (to imply) others by his testimony before vanishing," doesn't seem to make a lot of sense to me.

If I think of the meaning of the passage, it seems that 1 is the choice, but then the author doesn't seem to be using the word the way that is shown in the dictionary.

I am using an American dictionary rather than a british one, would that be a problem?

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Is "for ever" a typo? If not, what does it mean?I know my question is a bit long-winded.
Thank you for taking the time to read it [and possibly respond to it]. :)

Question

"implicate" & "for ever"
My question is the meaning of "implicate" and "for ever" occurred in the following passage from George Orwell's 1984:

Sometimes they were released and allowed to remain at liberty for as much as a year or two years before being executed. Very occasionally some person whom you had believed dead long since would make a ghostly reappearance at some public trial where he would implicate hundreds of others by his testimony before vanishing, this time for ever.

Here is the definition of "implicate" in my dictionary:
verb [ trans. ]
1 show (someone) to be involved in a crime : police claims implicated him in many more killings.
• ( be implicated in) bear some of the responsibility for (an action or process, esp. a criminal or harmful one) : the team believes he is heavily implicated in the bombing | a chemical implicated in ozone depletion.
• involve (something) in a necessary way : cable franchise activities plainly implicate First Amendment interests.
2 [with clause ] convey (a meaning or intention) indirectly through what one says, rather than stating it explicitly; imply : by saying that coffee would keep her awake, Mary implicated that she didn't want any.

If I look at its sentence structure, it looks like 2. 
But "to implicate (to imply) others by his testimony before vanishing," doesn't seem to make a lot of sense to me.

If I think of the meaning of the passage, it seems that 1 is the choice, but then the author doesn't seem to be using the word the way that is shown in the dictionary.

I am using an American dictionary rather than a british one, would that be a problem?

===========

Is "for ever" a typo? If not, what does it mean?I know my question is a bit long-winded. 
Thank you for taking the time to read it [and possibly respond to it]. :)

Answer

Hi No
I would not underestimate Mr Orwell's ability to choose his words carefully.  In this context, if you 'implicate' someone, you are suggesting that they are involved in some (criminal) activity.  They become suspects in the crime.  It is also indirect, in that you would not necessarily name them all individually, or say exactly what their involvement was.

When writing, you don't necessarily have to use words just because they match a particular dictionary's definition.  One of the reasons that 1984 is such a fascinating book is Orwell's ability to  convey emotions, atmosphere and feelings through clever use of words.  The interpretation of meaning is part of the reader's experience.
So, I think it's it's definitely 1, with a hint of 2.

I can see no typo in 'for ever'.  It simply means 'finally', or 'once and for all' This is rather different to 'forever', which is 'always', or continuously, for all time).  If you vanish, it is a single action, not a continuous one.

Answer

NoAgenda, 

In Orwell’s novel, thought-criminals and traitors were arrested, tortured, and brain-washed. The government (Big Brother) was not just interested in killing criminals; it converted them to its way of thinking before executing them. The government wanted to destroy the thought and the thought-criminal. If he was set free for a time, it was only to observe him in order to make sure that he was thinking correctly.

When a lawbreaker was properly prepared, he was then tried in a public court where he confessed. “he would implicate hundreds of others by his testimony before vanishing, this time for ever.” In his testimony he not only denounced his own wrong thinking, he mentioned others that he knew of, who were also guilty of thought crime. The people whom he implicated would then be in danger of arrest by the Thought Police. 

Having destroyed the thought, which was the main goal, the government then executed the criminal. 

The definition 1) is the correct definition. It is the same definition that the Concise Oxford English Dictionary gives. 

“For ever” and “forever” mean the same thing. “Forever” written as one word was once used chiefly in America, but now is accepted worldwide.