A very basic question that I should not ask but I ask anyway :)
Why we say "To be verbs" when it is actually "an infinitive". I think if it was a verb, then it mustn't have forms such as (am, is, are). This must actually be an infinitive with the base verb "be" and other forms based on different tenses.
I mean we should say "be" verb instead of "to be" verbs. Also, if "to be" was a verb, it's meaning should be similar based on each subject.
Take the example of "to walk". We say it's an infinitive with "walk" as a base verb. And the meaning of "walk" is intact based on the subjects. But, for "to be" it seems it is reverse.
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Respuestas · 4
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I don't understand the question.
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because you never use "to must", "to can", "to should" etc.
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It is still a verb, it's just that this one is irregular, which happens to many verbs in English.
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This is an interesting question.
I had not thought about this before.
"To be" does change forms more than other verbs.
"am / is / are" compared to "walk / walks" or "eat / eats."
I don't know why, but it is interesting to think about.
Good luck!
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