Hello good teachers speaking English as their native language, How do you do. 1. What idle man can withtand the temptation of a woman to fascinate, and another man to eclipse.(original) 2. The idle man can withtand the temptation of a woman to fascinate, and he can withstand the temptation of another man to eclipse.(my guess to the original) Question: Which is grammatically correct? Do both have the same meaning? Mostly because I really don't understand why the word "What" is used in the original, (so) I imagine the number 2 which is my guess to the original. By grammar, ♦"what + subject( an idle man, oh…oh…I am perhaps sorry to guess here the author of original must have not neglect such simple article as a "an" before the "adjective idle") + predicate (can withstand) + object ( the temptation of a woman to fascinate) ♦ , IS a complex or complete noun phrase like ♦ what Tom ate yesterday), but then, the author suddenly writes "and another man to eclipse", apparently this is another noun phrase, which makes me totally be at a loss about the whole original structure as : a noun + and (another noun) like a apple and a table, it (the original)is two two nouns not complete sentence, how does it let me know what on earth it is means?!?! SO I HAVE TO exert my imagination so as to write number 2 , wanting to smooth the path to my anger at the author due to my poor English level, but wanting more to smooth the path to my boundless thanks to you because your explanation of the original by grammar definitely must be so logical and reasonable that it makes me suddenly correctly understand the original.