Gabriel
in no way Hi, there I have a question about "by no means" and "in no way". In the following sentence, which one is better? About Dilma's(Brazilian president) impeachment: "By no means Dilma's suspension means an end to corruption in Brazil" or "In no way does Dilma's suspension mean an end to corruption in Brazil" P.S What if I said: Dilma's suspension in no way means an end to corruption in Brazil"? Thank you
13 maj 2016 21:04
Odpowiedzi · 3
Hi there. You asked, "In the following sentence, which one is better?" 1."By no means Dilma's suspension means an end to corruption in Brazil" A: It would be, "By no means 'does' Dilma's suspension 'mean' an end to corruption in Brazil. But using "means and mean" so close together is a bit redundant. Doesn't sound good to me. 2. "In no way does Dilma's suspension mean an end to corruption in Brazil" A: You could write that. 3. "Dilma's suspension in no way means an end to corruption in Brazil"? A: This version is my personal preference.
13 maja 2016
Your first sentence is grammatically incorrect. It should be 'by no means does Dilma's suspension mean an end to corruption...' It's the same structure in both sentences.
13 maja 2016
I don't have perfect English, but they both sound fine to me.
13 maja 2016
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