He hasn’t played since he ……… the accident
.a) had
b) has had
c) has
c) had had
why is the solution (A)? I have learned from a tenses course on Coursera site that the 1st event in a present perfect & 2nd event in past simple so why the answer is not (B)
can any one explain this to me? or this is something else.
Best regards,
Hello!
It's simply because the verb of the main clause is already in the present perfect tense (has not played), therefore the answer should indeed be A).
I've actually encountered a very similar example before - and I remember making the same mistake. This ought to make up for it :D
If there are any native speakers who can explain this in more detail, please feel free to correct me,
Greetings from Serbia!
Dear Sirs thanks for your comments ..even if the first event which is after (since ) ?? :)
so the rule is not absolute for first event should be present perfect :)
many thanks for your cooperation <3
