julie
... "de o" nem ismer." = ..."but he doesn't know me." Why is ismer indef.? isn't me an object?
2014年1月7日 00:58
解答 · 3
Thank you. That was very helpful, Istvan.
2014年1月7日
That's not really the case. It is actually not conjugated in the indefinite. It is a (perhaps unique) feature of the Hungarian language that the object can often be omitted after the verb. However, "Ö nem ismer" translates both to "He doesn't know me" or He doesn't know you". This depends on the context. Let's take another example: They don't know him. (Ők) nem ismerik (őt). As you can see, I put the words which can be omitted in brackets. However, it is not really a mistake if you don't omit these. There is also indefinite conjugation of verbs in Hungarian, but I wouldn't go into details about that now.
2014年1月7日
I figured it out. Me is the object, but it's 1st person, so it's conjugated in the indefinite.
2014年1月7日
還沒找到你要的答案嗎?
寫下你的問題,讓母語者來幫助你!