Well, only the author can answer this question. HOWEVER, in British English, companies, organizations, etc., are often treated, grammatically, as plural, whereas in the United States (and many other countries) companies, regardless of size, are treated as SINGULAR nouns.These are called "collective nouns". So whoever wrote the sentence you quote, actually employed both the singular and plural in the same sentence. This "violates" another grammatical rule called "parallelism" which basically states that things like the same tense, number, etc., be the same in the same sentence (at least). Thus, had the writer used "have" OR "has" in both places, it would have been grammatically correct (depending, mostly, on where you live / what the custom is in your area of the world). SUGGESTION: Google "collective nouns" and you'll get some good information.

The writer in question HAS been made aware of the inconsistency, and they HAVE now amended the offending sentence on the original thread. ;)

I suppose the writer meant to say "we have?" in reference to the ITALKI team. Either way works, depending on how they write it. In the first part of the sentence they write "ITALKI has," because they are referring to the site as a single body/entity. In the second part, it would be clearer if they wrote "we," however.