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"It is no use to do..." and "It is no use doing..."?
1.It is no use to do...
2.It is no use doing...
(Which is right between 1 and 2 ?)
17. Mai 2010 19:34
Antworten · 4
1
both can be used
1st means now
it's no use to give the patient any medicine, bcz he died minutes ago.
2nd means always
it's no use crying over the spilt milk.
it's no use talking to him, he never listens to advice.
17. Mai 2010
Both are correct. The second is more used than the first one though. It probably also depends what type of English you're speaking since certain places speak English differently. American English(what I speak) is slightly different from British English is slightly different from Australian English, etc.
18. Mai 2010
2 is more correct. 1 is grammatically correct, however, not used in everyday language.
17. Mai 2010
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