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Mahmoud Mohammed
have or has why we say : the father doesn't have a job. not the father doesn't has a job.

Risposte · 7

2
Please remember this rule, and you will never be confused again about this matter: After do / does / did, you ALWAYS use the base form of the verb. (Base form = the infinitive WITHOUT the word "to.") The father DOES not HAVE a job. The father DID not HAVE a job. DOES the father HAVE a job? DID the father HAVE a job?
2
This is simply because the third person singular form "s" in "has" must move into "doesn't" in the negative sentence and therefore "has“ should change to "have"
2
"doesn't has" is wrong!
1
As far as I know it is bacause of the verb DO. It is something like this: If there is two auxiliary verbs in the sentence (in this case DO+HAVE) the latter one does not conjugate in person. *Sorry, can't remember the whole grammatical explanation by heart.* See examples: WITHOUT DO: The father has a job. WITHOUT DO: The father hasn't got a job. WITH DO: The father doesn't have a job. WITH DO: The father does have a job.
1
HAVE is used with some pronouns and plural nouns: 'I have a great English teacher.' 'You have toothpaste on your chin.' HAS Has is used with the third person singular. For example: 'She has a great personality.' 'He has a new haircut.' usually it goes like this I have = I've you have = you've we have = we've they have = They've he has = he's it has = it's since 'father' is a third person singular we use 'have'. If u are still uncertain please check the link "http://www.ecenglish.com/learnenglish/using-have-and-has" hope it helped!!!!!!!!

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